UGC NET- June 2022- Management

51.What are the problems commonly associated with the scientific management?

(A) Managers often implement only the increased output part of the plan

(B) Managers allow workers to share the benefit thus increased labour costs

(C) Jobs become over-simplified and repetitive. often replaced by new technology

(D) Workers feel comfortable due to job security and practiced work

(E) Workers do not feel comfortable because of heavy pressure of work

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

(1) (A), (C) and (D) only

(2) (B), (C) and (D) only

(3) (C), (D) only

(4) (A), (C) only

 

52. An approach of managing international operations in which nationality is down-played and the firm actively searches on world-wide or regional basis for the best people to fill key positions, is known as:

(A) Geocentric approach

(B) Ethnocentric approach

(C) Polycentric approach

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below

(1) (A), (B) only

(2) (A) only

(3) (B), (C) only

(4) (C) only

 

53. Retailer cooperatives belong to which of the following distribution channel systems?

(1) Contractual

(2) Administered

(3) Horizontal

(4) Corporate

 

54. Which one of the following is not an intramural function of trade unions?

(1) Hike in wages

(2) Extension of medical facilities during sickness and casualties

(3) Job security

(4) Providing more benefits

 

55. Match List I with List II :

List I                                                     List II

Costs and Financial Concepts                Mechanism and Measures

(A) Financial leverage                            (I) Contribution margin ÷ EBIT

(B) Contribution margin                          (II) (EBIT) ÷ (EBIT – interest)

(C) Operating leverage                          (III) (Contribution margin) ÷ (EBIT – interest)

(D) Combined leverage                          (IV) Sales-variable costs

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)-(II) (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

(3) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

 

56. Which of the following is true for the coefficient of correlation?

(1) It is not dependent on the change of scale

(2) It is not dependent on the change of origin

(3) It is not dependent on both the change of scale and change of origin

(4) It is dependent upon change of seale, but not dependent upon change of origin

 

57. The first and foremost important feature for a project to be successful is:

(1) It should have a legal support

(2) It should have adequate financing

(3) It should have a market

(4) It should benefit society

 

58. Which of the following tests/ studies are related to testing of the weak form stock market efficiency?

(A) Event studies

(B) Size effect

(C) Runs test

(D) Price – Earnings (P/E) ratios

(E) Autocorrelation tests

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (C) only

(2) (C), (D) and (E) only

(3) (A), (C) only

(4) (C) and (E) only

 

59. Which one of the following is the characteristic of organizational climate?

(1) There are policies that set forth the organization’s beliefs about how employees and/or customers are to be treated

(2) Standards of behaviour exist

(3) When organizational participants interact with one another they use common language

(4) This is an overall “feeling” that is conveyed by the physical layout and the way participants interact

 

60. Concept of ‘fit’ is central to which of the following schools of thought on strategy formulation?

(1) The positioning school

(2) The cognitive school

(3) The planning school

(4) The design school

61. Which of the following statement(s) are true in the context of quality standards?

(A) KAIZEN approach deals with continuous improvement

(B) BIS represents India in ISO

(C) TQM cannot applied to crude oil refining

(D) Six sigma allows 3.4 defects per one million cases

(E) Statistical quality control applications are limited to manufacturing industries

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (C), (D) and (E) only

(2) (B), (C) and (D) only

(3) (A), (B) and (D) only

(4) (A), (D) and (E) only

 

62. Which of the following statements are true in the context of CRM (Customer Relationship Management) 2.0?

(A) Customer interactions are not pre planned but happen in real time

(B) Software as a service is the dominant CRM model particularly in small and medium- sized businesses

(C) Customer data is typically stored on corporate servers only

(D) Means available for analytics are only standard multivariate statistical procedures such as cluster analysis and logistic regression

(E) CRM 2.0 uses massive amounts of structured and unstructured data

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (C) and (D) only

(2) (B), (C) and (E) only

(3) (A), (B) and (E) only

(4) (C), (D) and (E) only

 

63. Indicate correct options of the following statements on data collection and questionnaire design.

(A) In order to ensure sufficiency of data. the field questionnaire must be 10% above the required number

(B) In structured interviews, interviewers attributes can significantly affect the respondent’s replies

(C) Presentation of closed-ended questions and the general layout constitute important considerations in preparing a self administrated questionnaire

(D) In computer assisted data collection, degree of control over the interview process is high

(E) Description of important terminologies/jargons helps to improve the efficiency of respondent in filling the questionnarie

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) only

(2) (A), (C), (D), (E) only

(3) (B), (C), (D), (E) only

(4) (C), (D), (E) only

 

64. Match List I with List II:

List I                                                   List II

Concepts                                        Institution/Schemes

(A) Entrepreneurship and innovation      (I) Atal Tinkering lab

(B) Gaps in value chains                        (II) Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada

Yojana

(C) Think Tank                                      (III) Atal Innovation Mission

(D) Machine learning                             (IV) Niti Aayog

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)-(II) (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

 

65. While preparing a budget, which of the following activities enable managers to do a better job of managing:

(A) Advance warning of and assignment of responsibility for conditions that require corrective action

(B) Develop new policy to improve control of inventory management

(C) Adjusting the budget to reflect different levels of sales or production

(D) Coordination of activities among all departments whithin the organization

(E) Creation of standards for evaluating performance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C) only

(2) (C), (D), (E) only

(3) (A), (D), (E) only

(4) (B), (C), (D) only

 

66. Match List I with List II:

List I                                                               List II

Characteristic based price factors                         Descriptions

(A) Volatility (VOL)                                (I) Captures deviations from linearity in the relationship between returns and firm size

(B) Momentum (MOM)                          (II) Uses returns to firms outside the equity universe to account for risk dimensions not captured by the other risk factors

(C) Size Non Linearity (SNL)                  (III) Differentiates between stocks with positive and negative excess returns in the recent past

(D) Non Estimation Indicator (NEI)         (IV) Captures both long term and short term dimensions of relative returns variability

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A)-(I) (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

 

67. Arrange the following in the ascending order in terms of their equity market capitalisation:

(A) India

(B) United States (USA)

(C) Hong Kong

(D) Japan

(E) China

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (B), (E), (A), (C), (D)

(2) (D), (B), (C), (E), (A)

(3) (B), (E), (D), (C), (A),

(4) (A), (C), (D), (E), (B)

 

68. Innovative small firms are more likely to be in existence in which of the following sectors?

(A) Knowledge-based services

(B) Biotechnology

(C) Information technology

(D) Automobiles

(E) Cement

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (D), (E) only

(2) (C), (D), (E) only

(3) (A), (C) only

(4) (B), (E) only

 

69. Which of the following statements characterise the growth phase of product life-cycle?

(A) Build intensive distribution

(B) Maximize profit while defending market share

(C) Build awareness and interest in the mass market

(D) Diversify brand and items models

(E) Price to penetrate market

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (C) only

(2) (A), (C) and (E) only

(3) (C), (D) and (E) only

(4) (A), (D) and (E) only

 

70. In the absence of transactions costs, if a stock plots above the security market line (SML), it is:

(1) Overpriced

(2) Underpriced

(3) Fairly priced

(4) Efficiently priced

 

71. Match List I with List II:

List I                                                     List II

Life Cycle of an MNC                             Staffing approach

(A) Setting up the host unit                     (I) Polycentric approach is preferred

(B) Establishing the technology team to (II) Distinctly polycentric approach

begin core operational activities

(C) Full blown operations of the host      (III) Distinctly polycentric approach: could

unit with significant role in establishing              get to geocentric approach

global objectives and targets

(D) Strong operational leadership at the            (IV) Usually an ethnocentric or a

unit level while globally consolidating                          geocentric approach

with parent company

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)-(IV) (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

(3) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

 

72. Which one of the following is a taxable perquisite?

(1) Insurance premium

(2) Salary of servant employed by an employee

(3) Loan to employees

(4) Accommodation provided by the employer

 

73. A technique of building up a list or a sample of a special population by using an initial set of members as informants is called:

(1) Quota sampling

(2) Convenience sampling

(3) Snowball sampling

(4) Purposive sampling

 

74. The steps involved in development of a project are given below. Arrange them in proper sequence.

(A) Selection of business idea for a detailed analysis from the competing ideas

(B) Project installation and initiation

(C) Feasibility analysis

(D) Identification of investment opportunity

(E) Arrangements for financing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (D), (A), (C), (E), (B)

(2) (A), (C), (E), (D), (B)

(3) (B), (C), (A), (E), (D)

(4) (C), (D), (E), (B), (A)

 

75. Reason(s) for sickness in small industries in India are:

(A) Minimal use of artificial intelligence in business

(B) Inability to cope up with large market size

(C) Lack of innovation and technology focus

(D) Direct and indirect competition from foreign players

(E) Absence of regulatory support

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (B), (D), (E) only

(2) (A), (D), (E) only

(3) (A), (B), (C) only

(4) (B), (C), (D) only

 

76. Efficacy of written communication depends upon:

(A) Lengthy presentation

(B) Editing after writing

(C) Brevity in sentences

(D) Use of strong words

(E) Effective use of words

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below:

(1) (B), (C), (E) only

(2) (D) and (E) only

(3) (B), (C), (D) only

(4) (A), (C), (D), (E) only

 

77. Huge stores that combine supermarket, discount and warehouse retailing are called:

(1) Discount store

(2) Category killer

(3) Hyper market

(4) Off-price retailer

 

78. Which one of the following is not the assumption of Theory of Absolute and Comparative advantage?

(1) Countries are driven only by maximization of production and consumption

(2) Only two countries are engaged in the production and consumption of just two goods

(3) There are transportation costs for shipping goods from one country to another

(4) Labour is the only factor of production that helps in converting the raw materials into finished products

 

79. Diffusion of innovation theory is associated with:

(1) Peter Drucker

(2) Schumpeter

(3) Everett Rogers

(4) Fredrick Taylor

 

80. The assumptions of rational decision making are:

(A) Preferences are not clear

(B) Preferences are not constant and stable

(C) Problem is clear and unambiguous

(D) No time or cost constraint exist

(E) Final choice will maximize pay off

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

(1) (A), (C), (D) (E) only

(2) (A), (B), (C) only

(3) (C), (D), (E) only

(4) (A), (B), (D), (E) only

 

81. Which of the following constitutes Foreign Direct Investment?

(1) A speculator trying to make a profit by buying company shares on a foreign stock exchange

(2) Indian energy company buying territory abroad where it expects to find oil reserve

(3) A tourist purchasing foreign currency to spend on a holiday abroad

(4) A company signing an agreement with a wholesaler to distribute its products in foreign markets

 

82. Earnings per share of a company is Rs.5 and the rate of return required by its shareholders is 16 per cent. Assuming Gordon valuation model, what rate of return should be earned on investment to ensure that the market price of its share is Rs.50 and the dividend pay out is 40 per cent?

(1) 20 per cent

(2) 16.67 per cent

(3) 33.33 per cent

(4) 25 per cent

 

83. Which of the following statements are true?

(A) A good measure of dispersion is not duly affected by extreme observations

(B) Standard deviation incorporates the effect of extreme values thus making it most reliable measure of dispersion

(C) Co-efficient of determination (R2) is always positive and less than one

(D) Non parametric tests do not require us to make restrictive assumptions about shape of population distribution

(E) Z-test can not be applied when population is normal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (C), (D) only

(2) (B), (D), (E) only

(3) (D), (E) only

(4) (A), (D), (E) only

 

84. Which of the following technologies are fast changing the accounting ecosystems?

(A) Blockchain technology

(B) Enterprise Resource planning (ERP)

(C) Cloud computing

(D) Robotics

(E) Machine learning

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

(1) (A), (B) and (C) only

(2) (C), (D) and (E) only

(3) (A), (D) and (E) only

(4) (A), (C) and (E) only

 

85. Which one of the following principles of management states that for a group of activity having the same objective, there should be one head and one plan?

(1) Unity of command

(2) Division of work

(3) Unity of direction

(4) Centralization

 

86. Marston company sells a single product at a price of Rs.50 per unit. its fixed costs total Rs.15.000 and variable costs amount to Rs.20 per unit. If management reduces the sales price of this product by Rs. 5 per unit, the sales volume needed for the company to break even will:

(1) Increase by Rs. 5,000

(2) Increase by Rs. 4,500

(3) Increase by Rs. 2,000

(4) Remain unchanged

 

87. The main processing functions of information system are given below. Arrange them in sequencing order:

(A) Process transaction

(B) Maintain master file

(C) Process enquiry

(D) Process report

(E) Process interactive supper applications

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

(2) (A), (C), (D), (B), (E)

(3) (A), (D), (C), (B), (E)

(4) (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)

88. Match List I with List II:

List I                                                               List II

Trade concepts and terminology                           Description

(A) GATS                                              (I) Extends multilateral rules and disciplines to service

(B) TRIPS                                             (II) The agreement requires compliance with the provisions of Bern convention of 1886 to which India is a signatory

(C) TRIMS                                            (III) Refers to certain conditions imposed by a government in respect of foreign investment in the country

(D) MFN                                               (IV) Prevents countries from discriminating among foreign suppliers of services

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)-(I) (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

 

89. Which one of the following is a disadvantage of MBO as a performance appraisal tool?

(1) Difficult to develop

(2) Time-consuming

(3) Difficult to rate or rank employees relative to one another

(4) Can cause disagreements among employees

 

90. Which of the following is the correct explanation of resource-based approach?

(1) Internal sources are more important for a firm than internal forces for competitive advantage

(2) Process whereby a firm determines the costs associated with organizational activities

(3) External factors are more important than internal factors for competitive advantage

(4) Effective integration of both external and internal factors is the key to competitive advantage

 

91. In regression model, assumptions of error term are:

(A) Zero-mean assumption

(B) Constant-variance assumption

(C) Dependence assumption

(D) Independence assumption

(E) Normality assumption

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (C), (D), (E) only

(2) (A), (B), (C) only

(3) (B), (C), (D), (E) only

(4) (A), (B), (D), (E) only

 

92. Which of the following are the myths of brand communities?

(A) Build the brand and the community will follow

(B) Focus on opinion leaders to build a strong community

(C) Brand communities exist to serve the business

(D) Online social networks are the best way to build community

(E) Social networks are one community tool, but the tool is not the strategy

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (C) only

(2) (C), (D) and (E) only

(3) (A), (D) and (E) only

(4) (A), (C) and (E) only

 

93. Percentage of output lost for each one point reduction in the inflation rate is called

(1) Input and output ratio

(2) Capital-output ratio

(3) Sacrifice ratio

(4) Technological quotient

 

94. Which of the following statements are true in context of customer value and satisfaction concept?

(A) Value perceptions increase with quality, service and price

(B) Customer value triad is primarily a combination of quality, service and price

(C) Marketing is the identification, creation, communication, delivery and monitoring of customers value

(D) If the perceived performance of the product matches with perceived expectations, the customer is delighted

(E) Satisfaction reflects a person’s judgement of a product’s perceived performance in relation to expectations

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) (A), (B) and (C) only

(2) (B), (C) and (D) only

(3) (B), (C) and (E) only

(4) (A), (D) and (E) only

 

95. Match List I with List II:

List I                                           List II

Big Five Personality Traits                     Descriptive characteristics

(A) Agreeableness                                (I) Assertive

(B) Emotional stability                            (II) Imaginative

(C) Extroversion                                    (III) Trusting

(D) Openness to experience                  (IV) Secure

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A)-(III) (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

 

96. If a company’s current ratio declined in a year during which its quick ratio improved, which of the following is the most likely explanation?

(1) Inventory is increasing

(2) Inventory is declining

(3) Receivables are being collected more rapidly than in the past

(4) Receivables are being collected more slowly than in the past

 

97. Match List I with List II:

List I                                           List II

Symbol                              Process chart activity

(A) D                                          (I) Storage

(B)   ⇨                                        (II) Input

(C) ∇                                           (III) Delay

(D)                                             (IV) Transport

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)-(IV) (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

(2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

 

98. Penetration price strategy is followed under which of the following conditions?

(A) Where there is a high degree of price elasticity of demand

(B) When strong competition is expected soon after product introduction

(C) When company wants to recoup its research and development expenditure

(D) When company must keep demand within its production capacity

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (C) only

(2) (B) and (D) only

(3) (A) and (B) only

(4) (A) and (D) only

 

99. Which one of the following is not the disadvantage of international licensing?

(1) Inviting a potential competitor in third country markets

(2) High agency costs

(3) Possible loss of quality control

(4) No detailed involvement with foreign customers

 

100. Given below are two statements:

Statements I: Employers use human resource management activities to help employees realize their full career potential.

Statements II: Employers do this just because they gain by making better utilization of employees potential.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

 

101. Central focus of which of the following models is five-stage consumer decision process?

(1) Nicosia Model

(2) Hovard-Sheth Model

(3) Engel-Kollat Blackwell model

(4) Sheth-Newman-Gross Model

 

102. Arrange the following steps in the segmentation process in sequential order:

(A) Determine which demographics. life styles and usage behaviour make the segment distinct and actionable

(B) Create a “value proposition” and product-price positioning strategy for each segment

(C) Group customers into segments based on similar needs and benefits sought by them

(D) Determine overall attractiveness of each segment based on some predetermined criteria

(E) Create ‘segment story board’ to list the attractiveness of each segment’s positioning strategy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (C), (A), (D), (E), (B)

(2) (C), (A), (D), (B), (E)

(3) (A), (C), (D), (B), (E)

(4) (A), (D), (C), (B), (E)

 

103. Customers arrive at a reception counter at an average interval rate of 10 minutes and the receptionist takes an average of 6 minutes for one customer. The average queue length is:

(1) 3/10

(2) 9/10

(3) 11/10

(4) 7/10

 

104. Which of the following is a pre-offer takeover defence employed by target companies in hostile takeovers?

(1) Green mail

(2) Pacman defence

(3) Poison pills

(4) Liability restructuring

 

105. Arrange the following bond issues in increasing order of the underlying risk:

(A) Convertible bonds

(B) Callable bonds

(C) Mortgage bonds

(D) Unsecured bond

(E) Junk bonds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)

(2) (B), (C), (A), (D), (E)

(3) (A), (C), (B), (E), (D)

(4) (C), (A), (B), (D), (E)

 

106. Which one of the following factor does not influence the flow of FDI under Demand factors?

(1) Customer access

(2) Follow rivals Resource availability

(3) Follow rivals

(4) Exploitation of competitive advantage

 

107. Which of the following are essential characteristics of financial markets?

(A)Price continuity and depth

(B)Liquidity and marketability

(C) Normative governance and regulation

(D) Timely and accurate information flow

(E) Minimum transaction cost and informational efficiency

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C) only

(2) (C), (D), (E) only

(3) (B), (C), (D) only

(4) (A), (B), (D) and (E) only

 

108. A copier machine company provides better after sales service to its existing customer to improve its (company) and product image and increase sales of accessories and consumables. Above given statement is an example of:

(1) Stability strategy aimed at customer functions

(2) Stability strategy aimed at customer groups

(3) Expansion strategy aimed at customer groups

(4) Expansion strategy aimed at customer functions

 

109. In which of the following methods of capital budgeting, cash flows are reinvested at the cost of capital?

(1) Internal rate of return (IRR)

(2) Net Present Value (NPV)

(3) Payback period

(4) Accounting rate of return (ARR)

 

110. Nobel Laureate (2013) Robert Shiller advocates price earning ratio based on:

(1) Trailing twelve months earnings

(2) Latest four quarters earnings

(3) Analysts’ forward earnings forecast

(4) Cyclically adjusted 10 years’ earnings

 

111. Arrange the following steps of organizational socialization in the proper sequence:

(A) Select a good first supervisor to be incharge of socialization

(B) Provide a challenging first job

(C) Design a relaxed orientation program

(D) Provide timely and consistent feed back

(E) Provide relevant training

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (C), (E), (D), (B), (A)

(2) (C), (D), (E), (A), (B)

(3) (B), (E), (D), (A), (C)

(4) (D), (A), (E), (B), (C)

 

112. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion (A): Sustained current account surplus encourages the government to liberalize imports and capital movements.

Reasons (R): The current account and balance of payments positions of a country can significantly influence its economic policies.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

 

113. Which of the following are the underlying assumptions of cost-volume profit (CVP) analysis?

(A) Number of units produced and sold are equal

(B) Cost inputs and the output produced are linearly related

(C) Sales price and sales mix remain constant

(D) Zero base budgeting underly costs and pricing decisions

(E) Total fixed costs and variable cost per unit are constant

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C) only

(2) (C), (D), (E) only

(3) (A), (C), (E) only

(4) (B), (C), (D) only

 

114. Which scheme on performance and credit rating has been launched by Union MSME Ministry to assess the credit worthiness and capabilities of industries in the sector?

(1) Zero Defect Scheme

(2) Certification Performance and Economy Rating Scheme

(3) Performance and Credit Rating Scheme

(4) Industrial Incentive Scheme

 

115. The traditional accounting practice of resolving uncertainty by choosing the solution that leads to the lower amount of income being recognized in the current accounting period is based on which of the following accounting principles?

(1) Realization

(2) Matching

(3) Conservatism

(4) Materiality

 

116. A salesperson who relies on creative methods for selling products and services is called:

(1) Demand creator

(2) Missionary

(3) Solution vendor

(4) Deliverer

 

117. Arrange the following modes of entry in foreign markets starting with the mode of entry having least commitment, risk, control and profit potential:

(A) Company hires a local manufacturer to produce the product.

(B) Company starts exports working through domestic export agents and exports management companies.

(C) Company joins hands with local investor and forms a company in which both share ownership and control.

(D) Company starts export using domestic export department and overseas sales branch.

(E) Company offers a complete brand concept and operating system to an investor in return of certain fee.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (D), (B), (E), (C), (A)

(2) (B), (D), (E), (A), (C)

(3) (B), (D), (A), (E), (C)

(4) (D), (B), (A), (E), (C)

 

118. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Interest coverage ratio indicates how many times fixed interest charges are earned, based on the earnings available to pay these expenses.

Statement II: One minus the reciprocal of interest coverage ratio indicates how far earnings could decline before it would be impossible to pay the interest charges from current earnings.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

119. Arrange the following goods in the ascending order of the underlying income elasticity of demand.

(A) Necessities

(B) Inferior goods

(C) Normal goods

(D) Luxury goods

(E) Giffen goods

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (E), (B), (A), (C), (D)

(2) (D), (C), (B), (A), (E)

(3) (E), (B), (C), (D), (A)

(4) (A), (D), (C), (B), (E)

 

120. What is the correct sequence of steps involved in the master production schedule preparation?

(A) Obtaining the net requirement of materials

(B) Revising the preliminary master production schedule to accommodate the inadequacy of materials

(C) Obtaining the specification on required production

(D) Assessing the inventory in hand and on order

(E) Determining the gross reqirements of materials using MRP

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (D), (C), (B), (E)

(2) (A), (E), (C), (D), (B)

(3) (B), (C), (A), (D), (E)

(4) (C), (E), (D), (A), (B)

 

121. Match List I with List II:

List I                                 List II

Company                       Nature of business

(A) Alliance air                  (I) Swiss travel group

(B) Delhivery                     (II) Online travel company

(C) Ixigo                            (III) State owned regional carrier

(D) Kuoni                          (IV) New age logistic and supply chain start up

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)-(I) (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

(4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

 

122. Which of the following is not an advantage of implementing a quality system that conform to ISO standards?

(1) Improvement in employee involvement

(2) Improvement in house keeping

(3) Improvement in customer satisfaction

(4) Inefficient decision making

 

123. Data warehousing has various characteristics including:

(A) Focuses on modelling and analysis of data relating to a specific area

(B) Data warehouse is an integration of data from various systems like CRM system, SCM system, etc

(C) The time variant for a data warehouse has a historical perspective for example, past 10-20 years

(D) It is stored permanently i.e data once stored can not be updated

(E) It is stored temporarily i.e data once stored can be updated

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (B), (D), (E)  only

(2) (A), (B), (D) only

(3) (A), (C), (D) only

(4) (C), (E) only

 

124. Which one of the following is organizational process related job stress?

(1) Little performance feed back

(2) Role ambiguity

(3) No opportunity for advancement

(4) Rotating work shifts

 

125. Match List I with List II:

List I                                                        List II

Possible level of customer expectations                      Example

(A) Normative expectations                              (I) I expect this restaurant to serve me in an adequate manner

(B) Acceptable expectations                             (II) I expect terrible service from this restaurant but came because price is low

(C) Minimum trouble expectations                    (III) Most of the times this restaurant is very good. but when it gets busy the service is slow

(D) Experience-based expectations                  (IV) As expensive as this restaurant is, it ought to have excellent food and service

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)-(IV) (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

(4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

 

126. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Effective channel management calls for selecting intermediaries and training and motivating them in order to build long term partnership.

Statement II: Channel integration must recognize the distinctive strengths of online and offline selling and maximize their joint contributions.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

 

127. Business intelligence is to improve the timeliness and quality of the input for decision- making. It helps the managers to understand which of the following:

(A) Internal capabilities of the organization

(B) Trends and future directions in the markets

(C) External environment such as economic. political, social and demographic environment

(D) Behaviour of the competitors

(E) External capabilities of the organization

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

(2) (A), (D), (E) only

(3) (A), (B), (D), (E) only

(4) (A), (C) and (E) only

 

128. In which of the following situation(s), a competitive firm is advised to shut down operations temporarily?

P < AVC

P < ATC

P < MC

P < MR

 

129. Match List I with List II:

List I                                                        List II

Management concepts and theories                           Description

(A) System theory                                 (I) Customer oriented approach emphasizing human resources and quantitative methods to continuously improve

(B) Contingency theory                          (II) Concerned with formal patterns of arrangements and relationship developed by management

(C) Organization design                         (III) Based on open-systems theory and recognizes that there are many, internal and external factors that influence organizational behaviour

(D) Total Quality Management               (IV) All parts of an organization are interrelated and dependent on one another

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)-(IV) (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

(3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

 

130. Which one of the following is the most significant factor according to the Dunlop Model of Industrial Relation?

(1) External forces

(2) Management

(3) Labour

(4) Government

 

131. Talent management process include(s):

(A) Human resource planning

(B) Selection of employees

(C) Development of employees

(D) Employee compensation

(E) Employee seperation

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below:

(1) (A), (B) only

(2) (B), (C), (D) only

(3) (C), (D), (E) only

(4) (A), (B), (C), (D) only

 

132. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion (A): Median is the middle most item in the set of numbers.

Reasons (R): Mode is not unduly affected by extreme values.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

 

133. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a manager?

(1) Does the right thing

(2) Imitates

(3) Asks how and when

(4) Accepts the status quo

 

134. Currently, the country with the highest level of entrepreneurial activity. represented by Global Entrepreneurship Index is:

(1) Korea

(2) Norway

(3) US

(4) Australia

 

135. According to the Economic Times study, which one of the following is India’s best company to work for in 2021?

(1) Blue Dart Express Limited

(2) DHL Express India Private Limited

(3) NTPC Limited

(4) Max Life Insurance Company Limited

 

136. How often and how easily customers think of the brand under various purchase or consumption situations, is known as:

(1) brand salience

(2) brand resonance

(3) brand feelings

(4) brand imagery

 

137. Which of the following are the examples of need for status?

(A) Being in a position of authority over others

(B) Having executive privileges

(C) Participating in pleasant social activities

(D) Working for the right company in the right job

(E) Living in the right neighbourhood

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below:

(1) (A), (B), (C) only

(2) (B), (D), (E) only

(3) (A), (D), (E) only

(4) (A), (B), (C), (D) only

 

138. Which one of the following factors is not a factor in case of wide span of management?

(1) Fast changes in external and internal environment

(2) Well-defined plans for repetitive operations

(3) Effective interaction between superior and subordinate

(4) Thorough training of subordinate

 

139. Which of the following focus of OD interventions are relevant if the nature of intervention is structured?

(A) Reorganization

(B) Team development

(C) Counselling

(D) Work review

(E) MBO

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below:

(1) (A), (B) only

(2) (A), (D), (E) only

(3) (B), (C), (E) only

(4) (A), (B), (C), (E) only

 

140. Arrange the given stages of process of organisational change in the correct sequence

(A) Information collection

(B) Diagnosis

(C) Motivation

(D) Action proposal

(E) Stablization

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)

(2) (A), (C), (D), (E), (B)

(3) (D), (A), (C), (B), (E)

(4) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

 

Read the following paragraph and answer the five questions that follow:

Digital transformation has been a key theme of the Union Budget 2022 with announcements ranging from infrastructure status to data centers to taking fibre to all panchayats under the Bharatnet program. Introduction of a block chain based sovereign digital currency and setting up of 75 digital banking units. constitution of task force for animation. visual effects, gaming and comics (AVGC). launch of a digital university, digitalization of school education platforms and support for the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for large scale electronics manufacturing and IT hardware were also part of the overall focus.

Announced in 2015 with the goal of ushering in digitally driven transformation in governance, economy and society, it has already led to the launch of new schemes as well as the expansion of others like Unified Payments Interface (UPI) the digital literacy program (PMGDISHA). e-hospital. Digilocker. Common Service Centers (CSCs) and the number of internet users has also grown to over 83 crores. It needs to ensure world class digital infrastructure including high speed broad-band connectivity and 5-G network, hyperscale data centers to make India a global hub for data centers and cloud. With increased focus on privacy, security and the need for storing data within the country, there are strong demand drivers in place for making investments in data centers attractive.

Whole govt. approach and creation of new public digital platforms in major domains such as education. health, agriculture and logistics need to undergo a paradigm shift. There also needs to be strong focus on standard interoperability and using common technology platforms such as Aadhaar. UPI. Singlesign-on to make the development of new applications easier and faster. Creation of a vibrant startup ecosystem in artificial intelligence, machine learning. Internet of things holds the key to achieving trillion-dollar digital economy goal.

Further, there is an equally strong need to modernise digital laws in India to support growth of digital economy and address concerns on accountability of online platforms and increasing cyber security to create trust and confidence amongst the users in the online world, which is crucial for digital inclusion and to bring the remaining population into the digital world. A national policy on data governance is the need of hour so that access to data is made easier for research apart from a strong push for skilling and capacity building in digital technologies at all levels in partnership with the industry and academia to make India skill and talent capital of the world.

 

141. According to the passage, which one is the most crucial for the universalization of digital inclusion?

(1) Artificial intelligence, machine learning and internet of things

(2) New Laws to promote accountability, cyber security and privacy

(3) Digital promotion in education. health, agriculture and logistics

(4) Digital skilling and capacity building

 

142. Which of the following initiatives have already initiated India’s digital transformation process in governance, economy and society?

(1) Aadhaar. UPI and Common Service Centers (CSCs)

(2) Production Linked Incentive Scheme

(3) PM Gati Shakti Initiaives

(4) Industry academia participation for digital technologies

 

143. What has been the focus for digital transformation in the India Union Budget. 2022?

(A) High speed broadband connectivity

(B) Accountability of online platforms

(C) Infrastructure status to data centres

(D) Increasing data and intellectual property security

(E) Task force for Animation. Visual effects. Gaming and Comics (AVGC)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (C) only

(2) (A), (D) and (E) only

(3) (B) and (D) only

(4) (C) and (E) only

 

144. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion (A): India needs to modernize its digital Laws to support the rapid growth of the digital economy.

Reasons (R): New digital Laws are needed for digital inclusion and bringing more people to the digital world thus to increase digital users.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

 

145. Which of the following could be the most appropriate title of the passage?

(1) Digital Transformation

(2) Digital India: Way Ahead

(3) India: Digital and Skill Capital

(4) Vishava Guru Bharat: Digital Challenge

 

Read the following paragraph and answer the five questions that follow:

ABG Global Ltd. is a large size cereal manufacturing company that markets its morning cereals products to various countries of the world. In order to cater to the local markets, the company makes small changes in its product like sweetness and flavours. The core product, branding and packaging are all standardised. The sales of products have witnessed an unexpected rise in various Asian markets including India in the past few years. In response to this growing demand. the company has pursued an agressive strategy of marketing and producing its products by doubling its capacity. Last year, the company suffered a jolt. when its sales declined sharply. A careful analysis of market revealed that the market segment which adopted the company’s product were upper-middle class representing families where both spouses are working. Initially it was glamorous to adopt cereals as alternative breakfast option. But, after certain time. they reverted back to traditional Indian breakfast. India. being a highly conventional market offers less scope for standardized global products. In a volatile demand structure wherein huge marketing efforts are required, inhouse doubling of production capacity can result in large unrecoverable investment. thus hinting towards alternative strategies. The CEO of the company is now laying emphasis on product positioning strategies. Replacing a full meal with a non-Indian food has a lower success rate calling for customization. As such brand equity may not work.

 

146. A strategy aimed at reducing uncertainty faced by consumers when choosing products with unknown product quality is termed as

(1) Standardization

(2) Internationalization

(3) Customization

(4) Improvisation

 

147. While expanding business to new markets. analysis of following is required as a first step:

(1) Need for product improvement

(2) Analysis of current market position

(3) Need for technological infrastructure

(4) Possibilities of marketing tie-ups

 

148. ________ is a combination of standardization and differentiation, where the core strategy remains same, but ________is made to take into account specific customer group requirement.

(1) Positioning. effort

(2) Evaluation, segmentation

(3) Penetration, improvement

(4) Focus, differentiation

 

149. _________ is a set of consumers who envince interest in the marketer’s offer

(1) Target market

(2) Potential market

(3) Loyal market

(4) Skimmed market

 

150. In times of market uncertainties and low brand loyalties, the international firms should respond to spurt in demand for its products through:

(1) Flexible inhouse capacities

(2) Balancing local and global production

(3) Outsourcing

(4) Customized pricing

ANSWER KEYS

51.(4) 52.(2) 53.(1) 54.(2) 55.(2) 56.(3) 57.(3) 58.(4) 59.(4) 60.(4)
61.(3) 62.(3) 63.(3) 64.(4) 65.(3) 66.(2) 67.(3) 68.(3) 69.(2) 70.(2)
71.(2) 72.(4) 73.(3) 74.(1) 75.(1) 76.(1) 77.(3) 78.(3) 79.(3) 80.(3)
81.(2) 82.(4) 83.(1) 84.(1) 85.(3) 86.(2) 87.(1) 88.(1) 89.(2) 90.(4)
91.(4) 92.(1) 93.(3) 94.(3) 95.(2) 96.(2) 97.(4) 98.(3) 99.(2) 100.(1)
101.(3) 102.(1) 103.(2) 104.(3) 105.(4) 106.(2) 107.(4) 108.(4) 109.(2) 110.(4)
111.(1) 112.(1) 113.(3) 114.(3) 115.(3) 116.(1) 117.(2) 118.(2) 119.(3) 120.(1)
121.(3) 122.(4) 123.(2) 124.(3) 125.(2) 126.(3) 127.(2) 128.(3) 129.(4) 130.(1)
131.(3) 132.(4) 133.(2) 134.(4) 135.(3) 136.(1) 137.(3) 138.(2) 139.(2) 140.(4)
141.(2) 142.(4) 143.(2) 144.(2) 145.(3) 146.(1) 147.(3) 148.(1) 149.(2) 150.(4)